Transaction costs are added to every property transaction.  Is this add-on a fair addition to the fundamental, intrinsic value a buyer gets?  Is it part of the value of the home?  Or is it something else?  Is this a public policy issue?  Is it an appraisal issue?  And, is it yet one more question about the validity of the accepted (quasi-governmental) official ‘definition of value,’ where buyer’s price equals loan value?

Transaction costs (fees) may include loan application, escrow, credit report, title insurance, pest inspection, loan points, PMI, Appraisal, Appraisal management, Appraisal ‘technology’ fee, recording fee, transfer tax, underwriting and, of course, the broker/agent commission.

These are things we’re used to.  Even some ‘garbage’ fees.  It all goes into the value of a house.

But, but . . . are these things actually part of the actual value of a house?  Or something else?

If those fees, costs, and commissions are not part of the real, intrinsic, fundamental part of a place to live, to cook, to entertain, to sleep and play, to raise children, to feel safe, to get mail – – –  then why are they automatically part of the “value” of a house?  The definition of market value says so.

The transaction price is the market price is the market value.

Or is it?  It’s the price to the buyer.  Or is it the price to the seller?  Should ‘value’ be the buyer’s price, or the seller’s price?

The nationwide median closing costs for SFRs is around $8000.  The broker’s fee is around $30,000.  The median buyer’s price is around $550,000.  This means that nearly 7% is added to the actual, intrinsic, fundamental value of a home.

This house sale then becomes a comparable sale price.  It’s used to appraise other similar homes.  The pressure is upward.  The process repeats.  Higher again. Each time this one home sells, there is an upward pressure of 7% on the buyer price.

After three go-around resales, the upward pressure is three times the 7%, or over 20% upward! Creepy!

Could it be that this constant upward pressure contributes to the unaffordability of housing?  Could it be that this pressure and constant trend impacts the first-time buyer?  Could this be a form of bias against the very thing we strive for in this country?

Higher ‘prices’ harm the first-time buyer, and the second-time buyer, and . . .  But does it help ‘generational’ wealth?  Hmmm.  The generational seller is faced with the same ‘market’ – where the buyer price received is some 7% below the ‘market’ price.

The real question is:  Should ‘market value’ be based on the price a seller gets, or the price including all the costs of transaction including the broker’s commission?

Question #2:  How does the ‘market’ get to an equilibrium — given this relentless upward press?